since after

[navi]

Are these sentences correct:

1-He has been talking nonsense since after the accident.
2-He has been talking nonsense since a while after the accident.
3-He has been talking nonsense since some time after the accident.
4-He has been talking nonsense since two weeks after the accident.

If 1 is correct, can we say anything about the time lapse between the accident and the beginning of his talking nonsense?

[Mister Micawber]

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#1 makes no real sense to me, Navi-- it seems like a failed communication.
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[Beery]

Number 1 looks odd to me. I don't think 'after' is needed. The others all seem to be better English. But as they are they all seem to imply that there was a gap between the accident and the start of the nonsense-talking. If #1 was missing the "after" it would not imply a gap, but anyway #1 looks clumsy to me when it contains 'after'.

[danmahaffey]

The secret to success with since in these sentences is for you to communicate a clear starting point at which the nonsense talk began.

If your listener or reader doesn't grasp that, or thinks you meant to say for (for example) instead of since, you might need to reword your sentence for precision.